I recently purchased a used boat and used my dad as the temporary lender. he paid cash. We want to title it in both our names so when I finally buy it from him we won't have to pay an additional sales tax. Does anyone know if this will work and if so any suggestions? Thanks in advance.

I would think he would be listed as the leinholder and you the owner. When its paid off, he then releases the lein.

One thing is if there is no lien (a bank), there will be no lien holder listed. Paying cash eliminates the term "lien holder". We deal with loans, liens, titles and payoffs every day. Here is what we advise in ALL title questions....go to the state office that deals with titles. In your state it is called Texas Parks and Wildlife. Go to a local office, ask the nice lady at the counter the best way to handle it. Not having a lien will make it easier.
Let us know if we can help.
thanks,
Ken

in texas an individual can be a lienholder if you havent registered it yet put him in as lienholder on the boat an motor . trialers under 4000 lbs are not titled in tex they are registered if he wants a lien on the trailer he can file a ucc 1 the original titles will be returned to him you will recieve non negotiable titles when its paid off have him sign off on the lienholder spot on title an its yours hope this helps.

Thanks for the help guys. What if I chose to use a bank to finance the boat? They will then ultimately write him a check. If he is the lien holder, will this avoid us paying sales tax twice?